Why Everyone (except SCOTUS) is Wrong About TILA Rescission

All contrary arguments are erroneous since they would insert a contingency where the statute contains no room for any contingency. The language of the statute bars any such contingency when it says that the TILA Rescission is effective upon delivery, by operation of law. If anyone wants the statute to say or mean anything different they must get their remedy from the legislature, not the courts, who have no authority whatsoever to interpret the statute otherwise. The status of any case involving foreclosure is that it does not exist. Hence the court is left ONLY with the power to perform the ministerial act of dismissing the case for lack of jurisdiction.

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THIS ARTICLE IS NOT A LEGAL OPINION UPON WHICH YOU CAN RELY IN ANY INDIVIDUAL CASE. HIRE A LAWYER.

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So in answer to questions about putative “modifications”, eviction or unlawful detainer, bankruptcy, and TILA Rescission this is what I have written in response to some inquiries.

Should the rescission be recorded? Not necessarily but

YES. I would like to see it recorded. You need to check with the clerk in the recording office or an attorney who understands recording procedure. Generally recording a document with an old date must be attached to an affidavit that is recorded with the notice of rescission attached. The affidavit explains that the attachment was inadvertently not recorded at the time it was created.

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Should a copy of the notice of rescission be filed in the court record also?

YES. If there is any way to get the recorded document into the court record, it should be pursued.

This presents title issues because if you are recording this long after events have transpired, some of which are also recorded as memorializing transactions, fake or real. Any recorded instruments that purports to be a memorialization of a transaction before the rescission was recorded would generally be given priority.
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The lawyer sent me an answer to my notice of rescission. Now what?
Either file to enforce the duties to be performed (if you are within one year of the date of delivery of the notice of rescission), or file a quiet title action if the one year has expired. There are several different scenarios actually, but this is the one I would focus upon.
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I am getting kicked out of bankruptcy court. Now what?
Getting “kicked out” of BKR court probably means that you are back in the state court system which might open some opportunities for you to get more into the court record. (Like an old rescission).
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My property is being sold. Does that mean that I have to get out?
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They can’t get you out without filing an unlawful detainer (eviction in some jurisdictions) based upon an asserted change of title. There might be a period of time between the sale and the attempt to get you out of the home (eviction or unlawful detainer). If the property is sold to a “third party” they want want rent from you, which could allow you to stay.
The unlawful detainer action presents another opportunity to raise the issue of rescission, since the entire action is based upon a valid change of title. It also sets off potentially another round for appeal, especially on the issue of rescission. Res Judicata and Collateral Estoppel do not apply to jurisdictional issues. If the rescission was mailed then by operation of the law the note and mortgage are void.
The defense is ordinarily that the “sale” was a fabrication based upon fictional claims and was contrary to the notice of rescission, which voided the note and mortgage upon which they were relying. The time for challenging the rescission has long passed. Hence all enforcement actions after the date of the 2009 rescission are void since they were based upon various claims attendant to paper instruments that were void, effective the day of delivery of the rescission.
Note that delivery of TILA Rescission notice is complete when dropped in a USPS mailbox and your testimony that it was sent via US Postal Service is all that is necessary as foundation.
I sent 2 notices of rescissions. Is that better or worse for me?
If I was defending against your claim of rescission I would argue that sending the 2016 rescission was either an admission that the earlier one had not been sent or that it was a concession that, for whatever reason, the 2009 rescission notice had been abandoned.
Hence I suggest you put very little emphasis on the new rescission and maximum emphasis on the old rescission.
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I sent the rescission less than 3 years after the modification but more than 3 years since the alleged consummation. Hoes my rescission affect my loan in that instance?
In most cases “modifications” are not treated as new loans. But the fact that something is called a modification and it really changes everything including the “lender” it may be possible to characterize it as a new loan subject to TILA Rescission. TILA Rescission hinges on whether the “modification” was a new loan — a fact, we would argue — that must be determined by trial. Since intent is part of the analysis of a contract, this could present another opportunity to force them to admit they don’t know the identity or intent of the creditor and whether said creditor had given them authority to make a new contract.
And the underlying narrative for this approach is that as a new contract, the “lender” was required to comply with disclosure requirements at the time of the new contract, thus triggering the three day right of rescission and the the three year limitation. Under my theory, based on Jesinoski, it doesn’t matter whether the three years has expired or not.
We know for certain that the notice of rescission is effective upon mailing; it is not based upon some contingent event or claim or court order. The date of consummation is itself a factual issue that can be in the pleading of the creditor (who is the only one with standing, the note and mortgage having been rendered void) claiming that the notice of rescission should be vacated based upon the three years, the date of consummation etc. 
Any alternative theory that puts the burden on the property owner would be contrary to the express wording of the statute and the SCOTUS ruling in Jesinoski. The statute 15 USC §1635 and SCOTUS are in complete agreement: there is no law suit required to make rescission effective. It would make the statutorily defined TILA Rescission event indefinite, requiring a court ruling before any rescission would be treated seriously. In other words, the opposite of what the statute says and the opposite of what SCOTUS said in Jesinoski. 
All contrary arguments are erroneous since they would insert a contingency where the statute contains no room for any contingency. The language of the statute bars any such contingency when it says that the TILA Rescission is effective upon delivery, by operation of law. If anyone wants the statute to say or mean anything different they must get their remedy from the legislature, not the courts, who have no authority whatsoever to interpret the statute otherwise. The status of any case involving foreclosure is that it does not exist. Hence the court is left ONLY with the power to perform the ministerial act of dismissing the case for lack of jurisdiction.
All this is important because we ought to be heading toward any defensive strategy that reveals the absence of a creditor. We are betting that the fight to conceal the name of the creditor is a cover for not knowing the the identity of the creditor, hence fatally undermining the authority as holder, servicer, trustee or anything else.
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What if consummation never occurred?
It may turn out that consummation between the parties to the note and mortgage never occurred. It’s important to remember that would mean the rescission is irrelevant since the loan contract does not exist. But such a finding by a court of competent jurisdiction would negate the legal effect of the note and mortgage; this is true as long as the note was not purchased for value in good faith by a buyer without knowledge of the borrower’s defenses.
In that case, the burden does shift to the homeowner and it is entirely possible that under that scenario there could be no consummation but nevertheless homeowner liability would continue on the falsely procured note and potentially the mortgage as well. The reason is simple: that is what the State statute says under Article 3 and Article 9 of the UCC, as adopted by all 50 states. The homeowner’s remedy in such a scenario would be limited to actions for damages against the intermediaries who perpetrated the the fraudulent and fictitious “transaction” in which the named lender failed to loan anything.

Consummation- Is an Act not an Illusion

by William Hudson

Neil Garfield is adamant that if consummation did not occur, there can be no contract. His belief is supported by hundreds of years of contract law (including the marriage contract). In regards to marriage, most people know if consummation occurred, yet when it comes to taking out a securitized loan like a mortgage, most people only assume it did.   Without proof one can only speculate that consummation occurred.

Due to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, any lender in America should be capable of producing the needed documentation to prove they own a Mortgage and Note- and that consummation occurred. With the click of a computer mouse, instantaneously the journal entries in the lender’s financial, accounting, and general ledger systems should show that a loan was consummated and the Note was assigned to a valid trust. Instead, the banks resort to forgery and fraud. If they had the documentation, fraud would not be necessary.

Since around 2001 banks have been mocking up documents to create a paper trail to create the illusion of ownership- but in light of all the fabricated document fraud, it is time that homeowners demand to see the money trail and are permitted to do so. The money trail should begin at consummation of the loan between the two parties who agreed to contract: the homeowner and lender. However, this is not the way that consummation works in a securitized mortgage transaction. By design, the homeowner is not allowed to know who they are borrowing funds from- and transparency is of no concern.

Can you imagine this occurring in any other consumer transaction?  Imagine the chaos that would ensue, for instance, if you thought you were financing a truck through Ford Credit, yet unbeknownst to you, Honda funded the loan.  You may have ended up with the truck, but you may have been induced into a contract you didn’t agree with (especially if your goal was to “buy American”).  Why should Mortgage loans be any different?  And why should Congress bother passing laws like TILA if the banks are going to ignore consumer protection laws with impunity?

There can be no consummation when the party lending the money is never disclosed to the borrower. A homeowner is conned into believing the party listed on their note and mortgage is actually the party who is taking the risk by lending their own funds- when this party who is named on the Note is an originator- not a lender.

Has anyone stopped to ask why all the secrecy?   The only reason for secrecy is to hide the truth- whatever that may be (dark pools? empty trusts? stolen funds?). There is a reason for the deception that begins at the closing table, endures through servicing, and only ends upon sale of the property or payoff.

Consummation under the Federal Truth-in-Lending-Act occurs when the state law on contract or lending says it begins. According to attorney Neil Garfield, “Most state laws require offer, acceptance and consideration. So while the door is open to inconsistent results, in order to find that consummation did happen and that the date of consummation is known, we still must visit the issue of consideration.” Consideration is basically the exchange of something of value in return for the promise or service of the other party. Take note, consideration is not the exchange of value in return for the promise or service of an unidentified third party. However, modern securitization has nothing to do with the name of the original “lender” on the Note that in 99% of all cases did not loan anything of value.

When a homeowner is not provided the name of the party who is actually taking the risk and has skin in the game- they lose their ability to negotiate in good faith with this party (the investors of the trust). Over the span of a 30 year loan, “life” happens. It is terrifying that a bank can use one late payment as an excuse to create a default.

Banks were once responsive to homeowners because they had an actual investment and needed the homeowner to successfully make payments.   If a homeowner had a short-term cash flow problem, the banks were willing to work with them- it was in their best interest to do so. Homeowners no longer have the luxury of negotiating with the party who provided the funds, but must attempt to solve any mortgage issues with a loan servicer who is financially rewarded by engineering a default- by failing to provide responsive customer service to the homeowner (or by blatantly misleading the homeowner).

In fact, this week the CFPB announced that consumers made almost 900,000 complaints about their loan servicers between March and April 2016. The complaints center around three areas:

  1. Problems when consumers are unable to pay: Consumers complained of prolonged loss mitigation review processes in which the same documentation was repeatedly requested by their servicer. Consumers also complained that they received conflicting and confusing foreclosure notifications during the loss mitigation review process.
  2. Confusion over loan transfers: Consumers complained that they were often not properly informed that their loan had been transferred. As a result, payments made to either the prior or current servicer around the time of the transfer were not applied to their account.
  3. Communication issues with servicers: Consumers complained that when they were able to speak with their servicer, the information they received was often confusing and did not provide the clarifications they were hoping for.

According to the report, the mortgage companies with the worst records between November 2015 to January 2016 were Wells Fargo, Bank of America, Ocwen, and Nationstar Mortgage. Consumers are not receiving customer care because by design servicers profit when a default can be engineered. Based on the CFPB findings, it is obvious that the longer the servicer can prolong loss mitigation, the more fees they will potentially receive. A default allows them to collect thousands in late fees and penalties; and if they are lucky- foreclose on the home.

The servicer has no skin in the game and is incentivized to create a default by any means necessary- whereas, a true creditor does not want a default. The problem with the way the system is rigged is that the homeowner is prevented from knowing who they borrowed money from and therefore cannot negotiate in good faith with the party who has a vested interest in the homeowner making payment.

The central problem in all securitized mortgages is that the homeowner has no idea who they consummated the loan with. Although it is considered a predatory practice under Regulation Z to conceal the true lender, no government regulatory agency has stopped the practice of concealing the identity of the true lender at closing.  The TILA laws are on the books, but have no teeth.

Neil has said in the past that consummation only occurs after the closing agent receives and disburses the funds according to the alleged loan contract. Therefore, consummation does not occur on the date that the closing papers are signed. The requirement of giving the borrower disclosure papers three days before the closing is complete might put some daylight between the assumption that consummation occurred on the day the papers were signed.

Garfield states, “The simple argument is that the industry practice has always been that the borrower signs papers and THEN the closing agent requests or receives the money for the “loan.”” Therefore, Garfield doubts there is any support for saying that the borrower is contractually obligated to comply with the terms of the note or the mortgage if the money never came at all. Neil Garfield says that where the true problem lies is what occurs in the NEXT step.

“If we can agree that if no money ever came from anyone, the borrower doesn’t owe anyone anything and is not bound by the “facially valid” loan contract, then it follows that if no money came from the named Payee on the note and mortgagee on the mortgage, (beneficiary in a deed of trust), the “borrower” doesn’t owe anything to anyone,” states Garfield. If contract law was strictly followed, the homeowner is under no obligation to repay a party who didn’t lend them a dime.
This is where the issue of consummation becomes difficult to understand. “If money is sent to the closing agent by a party unrelated to the named payee on the note, then under what theory do we say that the note is evidence of the debt? It certainly should not be used to show that the borrower owes the payee any money because the payee did not make the loan and nobody related to the payee made the loan,” Garfield has repeatedly stated. Neil Garfield agrees with the assumption that the borrower owes back the money that was advanced on behalf of the borrower, but that transaction is not a debt nor a contract- it is a potential liability to the party whose funds were used to send to the closing agent.

That claim could not be in contract because the source of funds and the “borrower” never entered into a contract. The liability would be in equity and would exist independently of the false note and false mortgage, which means the claim from a real source of funds would not be subject to the note and mortgage but simply due on the basis of fairness in equity: the borrower received the benefit of the money from the money source and under quantum meruit would be obligated to repay the money.

This is where most people get lost on Garfield’s Rescission theories. Garfield never advocates that money is not owed to someone- what he argues is that the Note and Mortgage represent a transaction that never occurred- and therefore should be rescinded under TILA. Rescission would allow the REAL creditor (or investors) to come to the table and demand/receive payment.

And yet, loan servicers wanting to protect their unlawful gains (at the expense of the investors) are successfully deceiving the courts that consummation did occur. The entire mortgage scheme is rigged by a system of smoke and mirrors. There is evidence that the closing did not occur according to the contract- if the homeowner can manage to obtain the information through Discovery (but in 99% of all lawsuits the bank will not be compelled to reveal actual evidence). The courts could demand sua sponte that the servicer provide the actual business records and settle the matter- but this would reveal the truth that everyone has gone to great lengths to keep hidden.

When Congress wrote the Truth in Lending Act, they deliberately stated that the homeowner could rescind the Note within three days of consummation (they specifically did not say origination). The Supreme Court in Jesninoski reinforced the right to rescind and TILA was enacted so that banks would self-regulate and not devise reckless and predatory schemes (like what has happened). The homeowners and investors should not be punished for the deliberate obfuscation of the true terms of the “loan”.

All this analysis is aimed at one single point, to wit: that the source of funds does not meet the definition of a creditor to whom the money is owed. Most people understand Neil Garfield’s point but reject it regardless of how well it is founded in law and fact. They reject it because it upsets the mortgage securitization scheme started 20 years ago by the investment banks. It would mean that there is no creditor, there is no contract, and there is no obligation to comply with the payment terms under the note and mortgage. This is an unacceptable result for most people. They worry that the entire system would collapse if they were to follow the law as it has been written and decided for centuries.

But the feared consequence is not based in fact. The entire system does not collapse under this scenario. What happens is that the investors who bought fake Mortgage backed securities could deal directly with the borrowers and workout the terms of a mortgage loan that is both legal and enforceable. More importantly it would be a loan that would survive in value to the investor. As things stand now the Wall Street banks are driving as many cases as possible toward foreclosure because that is the way they collect the most fees — when the equity in the property is no longer higher than the claims for money upon liquidation.

So accepting the application of existing law as stated here, would mean that investors would suffer much lower losses and the homeowners would regain the equity in their homes or at least the prospect of equity while the wild terms and wild appraised prices of the past are abandoned. Obviously the SERVICERS would hate this equitable solution- because it would cost them the huge profits they receive through document fabrication, robosigning and other creative “solutions” that require fraud.

Let’s remember that when TARP was first announced, it was all about losses from mortgage defaults. When the government realized that homeowner defaults had little to do with TARP they expanded its meaning to include failing mortgage backed securities. But there were no bank losses from MBS because the banks were selling MBS not buying them. So then they expanded it again to include losses from credit default swaps, insurance contracts and other hedge products.

This was all based upon the premise that there MUST be a loan contract in there somewhere. There wasn’t in most cases. Nearly all of the foreclosures that have been rubber stamped by the court system were not only unnecessary, they were patently illegal based upon false representations from the banks. The foreclosure was a legal cover for all the prior illegal actions.

With that being said, if the homeowner only recently discovered that consummation did not occur; does the 3-year TILA window is likely untolled and the 3-day/3-year expiration time may never have commenced in the first place. Remember that according to law, Rescission is the act of rescinding; the cancellation of a contract and the return of the parties to the positions they would have had if the contract had not been made; rescission may be brought about by decree or by mutual consent.

Congress did not give you the Right to Cancel under TILA but the Right to Rescind. Cancellation means termination of the entire agreement by the act of parties/law. Whereas Rescission places the person back to the condition they were PRIOR to the contract; cancellation merely voids the contract and has no restorative properties. Congress could have simply allowed homeowners to cancel under TILA, but instead opted for Rescission. Cancellation would have stopped the bleeding, but Rescission actually reattaches the Limb. The judiciary must recognize that Congress used the words CONSUMMATION and RESCISSION not ORIGINATION and CANCELLATION in the Truth-in-Lending-Act so why should any Judge ignore the intention of the Act?  Rescission will eventually be won based on lack of consummation- but it may take another hearing before the Supreme Court before the state courts accept what consummation means.

Like the Mortgages, Rescission is Counter-Intuitive

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THE FOLLOWING ARTICLE IS NOT A LEGAL OPINION UPON WHICH YOU CAN RELY IN ANY INDIVIDUAL CASE. HIRE A LAWYER.

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There seems to be some miscommunication regarding rescission. The confusion seems to emanate from the assumption that the “borrower” would lose if there was a creditor with standing who filed a lawsuit to vacate the rescission. If so, that would be missing the point. The point is not whether the homeowner would lose if the lawsuit was filed. The point is that the lawsuit is never going to be filed. The rescission is effective as a matter of law, regardless of whether there exists an arguable or even valid defense.

Normally as lawyers we would anticipate the end result, but in this case the end result never happens because there is no creditor with standing, which is the whole point of understanding the false claims of securitization that have permeated the foreclosure marketplace. The answer, which I understand is completely counter-intuitive, is that there is no creditor — i.e., no party who could answer to the description of the owner of the debt (not the paper) — i.e. the party to whom the money is actually owed. The absence of a creditor is hard to fathom, but it is nonetheless true. AND THAT is why no bank, despite advice of counsel, has filed any action within the 20 day window to file, that seeks to vacate the rescission.

It may be true that we could expect to lose if there was a case filed and there was a trial. But if the case is never filed, the rescission stands. And since it is effective by operation of law, the loan contract (if it was ever consummated — which is doubtful) is canceled, the note is void and the mortgage is void. The only restriction I see is that in judicial states after judgment, it would appear that there is no loan contract that still exists after judgment and so there is nothing to cancel.

Looking at the date of documents is not the way to determine when a loan contract was consummated. We must return to basics, and that is what is presumed but the presumption is wrong. basic contract law X makes an offer to Y. Y accepts the offer. X and Y exchange consideration. In these loans, not only did X and Y NOT exchange consideration, but the very fact that they didn’t makes X a predatory lender as per REG Z. But more to the point, if X did not perform by loaning money to Y, there is no loan contract= no consummation= void note and void mortgage. If there was a consummation you need to know the date of funding, which is after the documents were signed and could be days, weeks or even months afterwards.

Check the Yvanova decision for more on this. Ownership of the debt, as per the Yvanova court, is what counts, not merely possession of paper that could and probably is fabricated.

Here are some quotes from recent articles or upcoming articles

“TILA rescission in which the notice of rescission alone (upon mailing) immediately cancels the loan contract, and voids the note and mortgage — even if the rescission is disputed on grounds of the 3 year limitations etc.

As Justice Scalia said, “the statute makes no distinction between disputed and undisputed rescission.” Thus the rescission is effective even if it APPEARS As though the right to rescind under TILA may not have existed on the date the notice of rescission was mailed.
NOTE TO LAWYERS: ANY OTHER INTERPRETATION WOULD REQUIRE THE “BORROWER” TO FILE SUIT TO MAKE THE RESCISSION EFFECTIVE WHICH IS THE OPPOSITE OF THE TILA RESCISSION STATUTE, REGULATION Z AND THE UNANIMOUS DECISION OF THE US SUPREME COURT IN JESINOSKI. THE STATUTE PUTS THE RESPONSIBILITY FOR PUTTING THE EFFECTIVENESS OF THE TILA RESCISSION IN ISSUE SQUARELY ON THE PARTIES PURPORTING TO BE THE LENDER AND THEY ONLY HAVE 20 DAYS FROM RECEIPT TO FILE A LAWSUIT SEEKING TO HAVE THE RESCISSION VACATED.”

RESCISSION: If no lender disclosed, then there was no consummation, no loan contract

For further information please call 954-495-9867 or 520-405-1688

RESCISSION IS NOT A GIMMICK. IT IS PUBLIC POLICY! TILA is designed to punish banks who play outside the rules. It is designed to put all the power into the hands of the borrower. AND it has worked up until it stopped working with hundreds of erroneous decisions by trial and appellate courts that only got corrected by a unanimous Supreme Court opinion written by Justice Scalia. The playing field is level again. Let the chips fall where they may.

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I received an email from one of my most knowledgeable anonymous contributors. It raises an interesting question. If the lender was not disclosed at closing, then is a TILA rescission effective? My first answer is that if the rescission notice is sent, then the mortgage and note are nullified by operation of law unless the “lender” files a lawsuit within 20 days contesting the notice of rescission. So whether you were right or wrong, it would be my opinion that if the “lender” does not respond, the matter is closed and that is the end of the note and mortgage. And if there is no note and mortgage then anything that happens afterwards is void because you can’t get a foreclosure on a mortgage that legally does not exist even if a copy of the mortgage is sitting in county records. And a sale would also be void. That is the way I see it.

But the interesting direct answer already found in the court system is that if the lender is not disclosed there can be no consummation because there is no loan contract unless you have at least two identified parties. If there is no loan contract there is nothing to rescind. But an admission from the “lender” or a finding by the court that TILA rescission is not available because the loan contract was never consummated or did not exist leads inexorably to one conclusion: the borrower still wins. The borrower can then sue to nullify the note, mortgage, debt, foreclosure and even auction on the basis that they are void by operation of law because there was no deal. And the borrower could then, in my opinion, sue to have the banks and servicers return the monthly payments and other payments they collected on the nonexistent contract for all the money they collected. This too is supported by some case decisions where Bank of America and others have been required to disgorge money they received when they had no right to collect it in the first place.

So while there is a specific legal theory on how to deal with this issue there is also a hidden issue that probably puts the pretender lenders in the corner. In order to challenge the rescission they must file a lawsuit within 20 days asking for declaratory relief that the rescission is not effective. If their grounds are that TILA rescission is not available because there was no contract, then they are essentially arguing that the borrower can’t rescind because there was no contract. Either way they lose the deal, the mortgage, the note etc.

But that is not the only problem for pretender lenders. In order to establish standing to challenge the rescission they must allege that they or their predecessors were the real lenders and were the actual source of funding. Those allegations puts the burden of proof on the pretender lenders. They must prove the original loan and the acquisition of the loan not just by paperwork that says it happened by by showing that money exchanged hands both at origination and acquisition of the loan.

Here are the thoughts of anonymous:

“Just of interest in regards to getting into TILA rescission attempts past the 3 year mark of when loan was supposedly “consummated”, and trying to use lack of such as an argument. I came across the following case of Weintraub in 4th circuit saying, “No consummation, No TILA rescission.”  http://www.bankersonline.com/infovault/weintraub.pdf

Then you have the following theory, no consummation, TILA never tolled, good for a past 3 year-er:
(1) Ramsey v. Vista Mortgage Corp, 176 BR 183 (TILA RESCISSION IN BANKRUPTCY CHAPTER 13 CASE).  In this case, the court laid down the test of when the three year right to rescind begins to run and specifically tackles the concept of when a loan is “consummated.”  Several internal citations also help clarify this point.  Here is what the Ramsey Court said:

“When Ramsey signed the loan documents on September 13, 1989, he knew who was going to provide the financing. Courts recognize the date of signing a binding loan contract as the date of consummation when the lender is identifiable.”   The Court also cited to the Jackson v. Grant, 890 F.2d case (9th Circuit 1989), a NON-BANKRUPTCY CASE, and said: “the Ninth Circuit held that under California law a loan contract was not consummated when the borrower signed the promissory note and deed of trust because the actual lender was not known at that time. Under these circumstances, the loan is not “consummated” until the actual lender is identified, because until that point there is no legally enforceable contract.”

Now, I have to say I am more in the camp of the 4th saying that if you have no contract, there is nothing to rescind, but I guess you could say that it’s merely a discovery point and the rescission is conditionally effective until discovery is complete as to what actually occurred and can be put together by the court from the evidence (Then maybe a TILA rescission will be effective, maybe not; if not because there is no contract, what does the homeowner care? Nearly same result, plus he gets to sue for fraud and other damages suffered I guess….?), but what’s a past 3 year-er to do when arguing TILA?

……. if it turns out that consummation did not occur because the bank willingly withheld the table funded partners identity, or alternatively was acting as straw-man for undisclosed investors, and was using their money directly instead of funneling through the REMIC to purchase the home loan (therefore it really was not a buy-sell transaction, it was a disguised buy using duped investors money who expected a legitimate buy-sell to occur, but REMIC was not properly funded), then what angle do you think is best for TILA- Leave consummation out of the initial argument, and hang your hat on equitable tolling if past 3 year mark, or keep it in and argue both points”

And here is an article I found that describes the process of rescission. I think some of the issues presented might not be entirely correct, but it is definitely one point of view that deserves consideration.

The procedural question of whether a notice of rescission can be challenged outside the 20 day period provided in the Federal Truth in Lending Act is something that lawyers need to consider before they tell a client they cannot rescind. If there is an arguable basis for sending the notice on the belief that it is proper, then the defenses to the rescission can only be raised by operation of a legal proceeding — in a court room.

Hence, it is my opinion, that while there are risks in doing so, the sending of a notice of rescission that is based upon incorrect assumptions does not mean the rescission is void. Quite the contrary, in my opinion.

The receipt of that rescission means there is no more mortgage and there is no more note until a court says otherwise. And the court can’t say otherwise unless the “lender” brings a lawsuit to challenge the rescission within 20 days of receipt. Since there have been no such lawsuits filed to my knowledge it therefore appears to me that all notices of rescission that were ignored or “rejected by letter” had the effect of making the mortgage and note permanently void by operation of law without any lawsuit needed to enforce that presumption (see US Supreme Court decision written by Justice Scalia).

Some people or perhaps most people regards this strategy as a gimmick. But Congress passed it to avoid a super size regulation system with thousands of agents. It was designed to punish banks who screwed with the system so they would essentially police themselves. Obviously that premise didn’t work until now. It is national public policy not a gimmick.  They gave the “lenders” a very short window to undo the damage if they thought the borrower was wrong but if we read the plain words of the statute and the plain words of the Supreme Court, if they don’t do it within the 20 day window, they have lost the loan. They might still theoretically be able to collect on the loan but only if they can prove they loaned the money or paid for the debt. Their action would essentially be for unjust enrichment. And it would be unsecured.

Right of rescission lets you back out of some loans

Federal law gives you a cooling-off period when you get a home equity loan or line of credit, or when you refinance with another lender.

It is called the right of rescission. It allows you to rescind, or cancel, some types of home loans and walk away without losing money.

The right of rescission provides a three-day period when you can back out of the loan before you get the borrowed money, no questions asked. Within 20 days, the lender must give up its claim to your property as collateral and must refund any fees you paid.

A law called the Truth in Lending Act, which is designed to shield borrowers from unscrupulous lenders, grants the right of rescission. The law is intended to thwart smooth-talking loan officers who try to fleece elderly or unsophisticated borrowers out of their money and even their homes.

The law also protects consumers from themselves. The homeowner who takes out a home equity line of credit to buy a car, then thinks it over for a couple of days and decides that such financing would be a bad move, can rescind the loan. Likewise for the homeowner who takes out a home equity loan, then finds a better deal a day or two later. The homeowner can rescind the first deal within three business days and take the second.

Right doesn’t apply to all loans
The right of rescission is not available for all mortgages. Most importantly, there is no right of rescission for a mortgage made to buy a house. Borrowers and lenders can get tangled up in whether a mortgage is a purchase loan. Take, for example, the way financing is set up for many built-to-order houses. You get a short-term construction loan while the house is being built; then, after the house is finished, you pay off the construction loan with a permanent mortgage. You don’t have a right of rescission with either loan because both are considered purchase money.

The right of rescission also is not available when you refinance your loan with the same lender, when the house in question is not your primary residence (in other words, if it’s your vacation home or an investment property), if you borrow the money for your business, or if you’re borrowing from a state agency.

That leaves a lot of situations where you do have the right of rescission: when you refinance your mortgage with another lender and when you take out a home equity loan or line of credit (unless it’s part of a “piggyback loan” designed to avoid paying mortgage insurance).

Cash-out refi rules
Things get complicated if you do a “cash-out refi” — refinancing for more than you owe on your current mortgage, and taking the difference in cash. If you do a cash-out refi with the same lender, you have the right to rescind only the cash-out portion; if you do a cash-out refi with a different lender, the entire amount can be rescinded.

It doesn’t matter what kind of home you have: if it’s a single-family house, a condominium, a floating home or a manufactured home permanently anchored to land you own, you have the right of rescission.

A borrower must exercise the right of rescission within three business days of signing the loan papers, receiving all the loan disclosures, and getting a copy of the notice that there is a right of rescission. Usually, all three of those requirements are met on the same day; if they aren’t, the clock starts ticking only after all three conditions have been satisfied.

When the clock ticks …
That clock ticks only on business days. Much has been written by federal regulators about what counts as a business day. In general, every day is a business day except Sundays and federal holidays. Saturday counts as a business day, even if the lender’s office is closed on Saturdays. The right of rescission expires at midnight concluding the third full business day after the papers are signed and all other conditions are met. So, for example, if you close a home equity loan on Thursday, the clock starts ticking Friday, continues to tick on Saturday, stops on Sunday and resumes on Monday. The right of rescission ends Monday at midnight.

To exercise your right of rescission, you must inform the lender in writing — a phone call won’t do. The letter doesn’t have to be postmarked by the deadline — you merely have to drop it in a mailbox by the deadline. That means that if your right of rescission ends at midnight Saturday night, and you mail the letter just before the deadline, and Monday is a federal holiday so the letter isn’t postmarked until Tuesday, you still have rescinded the loan.

Not surprisingly, the loan officer might call after the rescission period has ended, just to ask if you’re still going ahead with the loan.

It is possible to waive the right of rescission so you can get the money immediately, but only in emergencies. To stay out of trouble with regulators, your lender is unlikely to let you waive the right of rescission unless the loan officer is convinced that you truly have an emergency and you’re not simply impatient. Examples of acceptable emergencies: your roof has blown off in a storm and you need a home equity loan right now to pay for a repair, or you need the money immediately to pay for a medical procedure.

 

Rescission: Equitable Tolling Extends Statute of Limitations

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Important Message: This blog should NEVER be used as a substitute for competent legal advice from an attorney licensed in the jurisdiction in which your property is located.

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see http://openjurist.org/784/f2d/910/king-v-state-of-california-d-m

The most popular question I get here on the blog and on my radio show is what happens when the three year statute has run? The answers are many. First is the question of whether it ever started running. If the transaction was not actually consummated with anyone in the chain of parties claiming rights to collect or enforce the loan it would be my opinion that the three day right of rescission has not begun to run. That would be a remedy to an event in which the note and mortgage (or deed of trust) has been signed and delivered but the loan was never funded by the originator any creditor in the chain of “ownership.” The benefit of the three day rescission is that you don’t need a reason to do it. But in order to do that you need to be careful that you are not stating that there was a closing because that would be consummation and therefore the right to rescind unconditionally ran three days after that “Closing.”

Second is the three year statute of limitations. The same reasoning applies.  But it also raises the question of non-disclosure and withholding information. The rather obvious delays in prosecuting foreclosures on alleged “defaults” are clearly a Bank strategy for letting the 3 year statute run out and then claim the homeowner cannot rescind because the closing was more than 3 years ago. That is where the doctrine of equitable tolling comes into play. A party who violates TILA and fails to disclose material facts and continues to hide them from the borrower should not be permitted to benefit from continuing the violation beyond the apparent statute of limitations. People keep asking why the banks wait so long to prosecute foreclosures. The answer is that it is because they have no right to do so and they are running out the apparent statute of limitations on rescission and TILA disclosure actions.

Third is a procedural issue. According to TILA the “lender” who receives such a notice of rescission is (1) obligated to send it to the “real” lender and (2) must file a declaratory action against the borrower within 20 days in order to avoid the rescission. If they don’t file the 20 day action, they waive the objections they could have raised. So far I have not heard of one case in which such an action has been filed. I think the reason for that is that nobody can file an action in which they establish standing. Such a party would be obliged to allege that they are the “lender” or “creditor” as defined by TILA. That means they either loaned the money or bought the loan for “valuable consideration” just like it says in Article 9 of the UCC. Then they would have to prove that allegation before any burden shifted to the borrower to answer or file affirmative defenses against the action filed by this putative “lender.”

CAVEAT: The doctrine of equitable tolling is remedial as is the statute, but it is fairly strictly construed. I’m am quite confident that the best we will get from the courts is that the 3 day and 3 year rules and other limitations in TILA starts running the moment you knew or should have known the facts that had been withheld from you at “closing.” The fact that you are not a lawyer and did not realize the significance of this will not allow you to delay the start of the statute running after the date of discovery of the facts, whether you understood them or not.  But this is a two-edged sword. The current practice of objecting to any QWR, DVL or discovery question without answering the truth about the claimed chain of ownership or servicers on the loan corroborates the borrowers allegation that the parties are continuing to withhold this information. So a well-framed TILA defense might serve as the basis for enforcing your rights of discovery and rights to answers on your Qualified Written Request or Debt Validation Letter.

Additional Caveat: The doctrine of equitable tolling has been applied with respect to the one year statute of limitations on TILA disclosures but it remains open as to whether it would be otherwise applied. From the 9th Circuit —

“Section 1640(e) provides that “[a]ny action under this section may be brought within one year from the date of the occurrance of the violation.” We have not yet determined when a violation occurs so as to commence the one-year statutory period. See Katz v. Bank of California, 640 F.2d 1024, 1025 (9th Cir.), cert. denied, 454 U.S. 860, 102 S.Ct. 314, 70 L.Ed.2d 157 (1981). Three theories have been used by other circuits to determine when the statutory period commences: (1) when the credit contract is executed; (2) when the disclosures are actually made (a “continuing violation” theory); (3) when the contract is executed, subject to the doctrines of equitable tolling and fraudulent concealment (limitations period runs from the date on which the borrower discovers or should reasonably have discovered the violation). See Postow v. OBA Federal S & L Ass’n, 627 F.2d 1370, 1379 (D.C.Cir.1980) (adopting “continuing violation” theory in some situations); Wachtel v. West, 476 F.2d 1062, 1066-67 (6th Cir.), cert. denied, 414 U.S. 874, 94 S.Ct. 161, 38 L.Ed.2d 114 (1973) (rejecting “continuing violation” theory, statutory period commences upon execution of loan contract); Stevens v. Rock Springs National Bank, 497 F.2d 307, 310 (10th Cir.1974) (rejecting “continuing violation” theory); Jones v. TransOhio Savings Ass’n., 747 F.2d 1037, 1043 (6th Cir.1984) (applying equitable tolling and fraudulent concealment).”

Hats off to James Macklin who sent me this email:

Hang on to your hats fella’s…in Sargis’ ruling … back in 2012…he confirms the equitable tolling principles of TILA as I had argued…just saw this again while reviewing…to wit:
“The Ninth Circuit applies equitable tolling to TILA’s … statute of limitations (King v. California, 784 F.2d 910, 914 (9th Cir. 1986).
“Equitable Tolling is applied to effectuate the congressional intent of TILA.”, Id.
Courts have construed TILA as a remedial statute, interpreting it liberally for the consumer.” (Id. Citing Riggs v. Gov’t Emps. Fin. Corp., 623 F.2d 68, 70-71 (9th Cir. 1980).
 Specifically the 9th Circuit held: “[T]he limitations period in section 1640(e) runs from the date of consummation of the transaction but that the doctrine of equitable tolling may, in appropriate circumstances, suspend the limitations period until the borrower discovers or had the reasonable to discover the fraud or non-disclosures that form the basis of the TILA action.” 
Gentlemen…I give you proof positive that the statute tolls and the fact that the term “consummation” is also subject to broad interpretation as we know…the loan could not have consummated if what we allege is found to be true… However, the non-disclosures language used by the 9th Circuit gives rise to possible myriad rescissions upon discovery of those non-disclosures…
James L. Macklin, Managing Director
Secure Document Research(Paralegal Services/Legal Project Management)
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