Homeowners do not win their cases because they proved the claim was false. They win their cases by preventing the lawyers from the foreclosure mill from putting on the required evidence to establish the claim.
*
Law is confusing because it is extremely obtuse at times, and it depends heavily on laws and rules of procedure that cannot be fully understood without the benefit of 3 years of law study and years in practice. Homeowners keep asking about how their victory can be justified or how they could lose when the claims against them cannot be verified.
The fact that the claim cannot be justified and cannot be verified is not a legal bar from alleging the opposite. People don’t get arrested for alleging stupid things in civil actions. And if they fabricate documents as exhibits, the judge is (a) forced to treat those allegations as true and (b) likely to be at least partially convinced that the claim is true.
PRACTICE NOTE: There is a huge difference between saying “the loan was securitized” or that “it is in a securitized trust” and proving that the loan was sold.*To many people, even lawyers without the benefit of training in accounting and auditing, the relationship between the allegation of “securitization” and a “Sale of the debt” is obtuse and basically incomprehensibly complex and blurred.*But the very plain truth under all securities laws and rules is that there is no securitization without the sale of the asset — in this case, an underlying legal debt owed by the homeowner to the claimed “assignee” or “Successor.”*No such sales occur in the current iteration of securitization techniques because no such sale is wanted or needed. Hence the allegation or claim of securitization is void, or in legal parlance, a legal nullity. No documents exist showing a purchase of any debt owed by any homeowner by any grantee via payment to the grantor. THAT is why you ask for the witnesses to the transction and the proof that payment was made.
Filed under: foreclosure |
Contribute to the discussion!